blonde poker forum

I've been looking for an answer to this but have so far been unable to find one so wonder if anyone can help here please.

If there is a pre-flop raise but a player yet to act has not noticed, and silently puts the correct amount of chips for a standard call of the blind, is he allowed to then fold (losing the chips he has put in) or does he have to call?

I know I have seen footage in the past where a player has done this and been told they can forfeit the chips they have put in and fold, or call if they wish, but this seems at odds to the rule that 'one chip is always a call' - unless that rule is meant to be very specific and it has to be just the ONE chip to call, so in these situations as the player has put in more than one chip it does not have to mean a call.

I know if a player says 'call' he is committed to the whole value, but just unsure on this area. Any help please?

TDA rules.

A player undercalls by declaring or pushing out less than the call amount without first declaring “call”. An undercall is a mandatory full call if made in turn facing 1) any bet heads-up or 2) the opening bet on any round multi-way. In other situations, TD’s discretion applies. The opening bet is the first chip bet of each betting round (not a check). In blind games the posted BB is the pre-flop opener. All-in buttons reduce undercall frequency (See Recommended Procedure 1). This rule governs when players must make a full call and when, at TDs discretion they may forfeit an undercall and fold.

Thanks, so it seems that the silent undercall should be treated as a full call, but the TD can choose to let the player off. Seems a bit odd to me, I'd have thought it should be hard and fast one way or the other!

Actually, re-reading it, it doesn't seem to cover what happens if there has been a pre-flop raise, apart from saying that that is down to the TD's discretion.