From this years WSOP shows
http://www.pokertube.com/free-poker-videos?movie=18150&title=WSOP_2011_Ep_18_-_Main_Event_Part_12_2_211 mins in, hand with Allen Cunningham and Visser. On the river, Cunningham picks up some chips (80k apparently) and moves them forward, Visser announces call before the chips are released. Cunningham then asks for a ruling as he hadn't released his bet so hadn't declared an amount.
Ruling is given that Cunningham can bet any amount still, but has to bet at least the minimum. It wasn't mentioned specifically but I think Visser was to be held to a call only (Rupert was at the table, can maybe clarify).
The question is, should Visser have all options open? If Cunningham decides to massively overbet/shove does Visser still have to call? If Cunningham bets the minimum can Visser now raise?
This year at UKIPT Edinburgh, with about 4 tables left I had a hand, folds to SB who min raises, I flat the BB. We check/check flop and turn. He checks the river, I reach for chips. Don't remember stacks exactly but it was something like 75k in the pot with 250k effective behind. Pretty much as soon as I touch the chips the player says "I call", I say "What?" he says "Im calling any amount you bet"
I ask for a ruling on if he is held to call any amount and if he has options open to him when I bet. Dealer says he thinks its held to a call and cant raise but wanted to check and calls the floor, floor said the same thing but wanted to check with one of the more senior floor men and he said SB isn't held to any action and has all options open.
So should he also have all options open? It seems like the same situation with the only difference being Cunningham made forward motion and is held to betting, I had chips in my hand but hadn't made a betting motion yet.