I've hardly ever played any nl cash poker, but had one of my occasional dabbles yesterday. Played 10c/20c on Blonde, and somehow managed to get involved in this $110 pot. My intital thought when he raises the flop is that I'm behind, but i sodded it and shoved them in anyway. Was ahead and won it. My immediate thought was that I had no right calling his flop raise, but now I'm not quite so sure. Any thoughts..?
Trading Places 10474621-259514 Holdem No Limit $0.10/$0.20
Seat 1 : Moskvich75 has $61.69
Seat 2 : MrSteveB has $2.76
Seat 3 : thlm302 has $15.45
Seat 4 : soledo has $17.08
Seat 5 : delvin555 has $0
Seat 6 : fullplayer has $56.33
fullplayer is the dealer.
Moskvich75 posted small blind.
MrSteveB posted big blind.
Game [259514] started with 5 players.
Dealing Hole Cards.
Seat 1 : Moskvich75 has
thlm302 folded.
soledo called $0.20
fullplayer called $0.20 and raised $0.80
Moskvich75 has 10 seconds to respond.
Moskvich75 called $0.90 and raised $2
MrSteveB folded.
soledo folded.
fullplayer called $2
Dealing flop.
Board cards [
]
Moskvich75 bet $5
fullplayer called $5 and raised $20
It's your turn.
Moskvich75 has 10 seconds to respond.
Moskvich75 called $20 and raised $33.69 and is All-in
fullplayer called $28.33 and is All-in
Seat 1 : Moskvich75 has
Seat 6 : fullplayer has
Board cards [
]
Moskvich75 has Full House :
full of Queens
fullplayer has Full House :
full of Jacks
Moskvich75 wins $110.06 with Full House :
full of Queens
Seems to me the probelm here is that because of my pf reraise, he knows more about my hand than I know about his. My reraise screams big pair. So it's pretty obvious that the 333 flop has given me the fh.
So, given that he knows that, his flop raise pretty much has to mean that he thinks he has me beat anyway. Which suggests he's either just called my pf RR with aces, looking to trap, or with kings (perhaps in case I've reraised with AK, so he's looking for any non-A flop).
But then I thought maybe I can shove against his flop reraise - precisely because I know that he knows that I've got a big pair and that therefore I can't call without AA or at least KK. There's a decent chance that I have a hand which has a good chance of being behind - which means that there's a decent chance that he's bluffing. Therefore I can shove and he shouldn't be able to call without having AA/KK himself.
I'm not sure that makes much sense, but I hope you get the idea.
I'm very confused.
We'd also had a couple of tangles previously in much smaller pots. I'd been raising a lot with all sorts and he'd started raising my C-bets on the flop a couple of times, though with what I don't know.
Whether or not any of that makes any sense (and realising that all he's probably really doing here is seeing a flop that seems to suit his JJ and then sticking them in without much further thought) I'd really like to know what you think I should do to his raise on the flop.
Thanks
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