This is an absolute nightmare to work out because your odds on the second set depends on the outcome of the first set.
that's what makes it easy to work out, we know set 1 so it's a simple matter of working out the number of permutations
No we don't.
OP gave set 1 as an example. It could actually be any one of 46656 combos.
yeah but we're all answering the example question
love that your last 2 posts were accepting what hopkin wrote and disagreeing with what I wrote when we'd both made the exact same point
I wasn't accepting what Hopkin said.
I just couldn't be arsed arguing with Hopkin because all he did was repeat a previous post.
My 'fair enough' was just accepting that he's happy to be wrong.
Your point was easier to counter because you put up an argument against what I'd said which gives me something worth responding to.
Are we retracting any of this now?
I thought I had explained it a bit more in the second post so a man of your intelligence would get it.
That was the bit I am happy to be wrong about.
Because of this:
2592/1
(I think

)
and this:
its a game of dice where the dice are all thrown at once

Yeah then I am pretty sure its 2592/1
and this:
Sigh
Nobbed it the first time
3110.4/1
also a bit of this:
Bare with me and its easily sorted, however it is obviously only expressible as a formula
as well as combining this:
hoping that's right. there are 462 unique sets of numbers that we can make with 6 dice if we ignore the order
Is this not wrong also as the chance of the first set being certain numbers is higher than other sets of certain numbers?
with this:
462 is correct I think though
I don't think I'll retract anything just yet.
Thanks for giving me the option though.