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Author Topic: Two chip ruling query  (Read 6963 times)
dik9
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« Reply #45 on: June 03, 2012, 12:48:23 AM »

Gatso, in ruling threads we seem to be in agreement most of the time, but I am presuming that you have the devil in you today Smiley
Every version of well known poker rules that i have read repeat this "rule"(the one quoted in the first page ott), the reason it's common is because it is sensible.
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gatso
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« Reply #46 on: June 03, 2012, 12:50:58 AM »

Gatso, in ruling threads we seem to be in agreement most of the time, but I am presuming that you have the devil in you today Smiley
Every version of well known poker rules that i have read repeat this "rule"(the one quoted in the first page ott), the reason it's common is because it is sensible.

I don't actually care about this rule one way or the other, it's fine, it works and it's fair. just don't really understand it as I think a raise would make more sense but there's no reason to change it
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dik9
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« Reply #47 on: June 03, 2012, 12:53:56 AM »

Gatso, in ruling threads we seem to be in agreement most of the time, but I am presuming that you have the devil in you today Smiley
Every version of well known poker rules that i have read repeat this "rule"(the one quoted in the first page ott), the reason it's common is because it is sensible.

I don't actually care about this rule one way or the other, it's fine, it works and it's fair. just don't really understand it as I think a raise would make more sense but there's no reason to change it

It is just an extension of the "oversize chip" rule that is needed if 2 chips of the same value are required to cover the call.
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JK
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« Reply #48 on: June 03, 2012, 03:00:52 AM »

The funny thing is, the reason I know this ruling and the reason I know why its like it is was explained to me when I worked at DTD. Happened to be Richard that came across and enlightened me/the table so pretty pointless me arguing the toss when Yoda is already in there swinging his lightsaber!
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GreekStein
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« Reply #49 on: June 03, 2012, 03:26:56 AM »

i agree with the rule. seems like the best way
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Doobs
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« Reply #50 on: June 03, 2012, 07:23:12 AM »

Call, anywhere I've worked.


Bet is 1100 a player only has 10x1k chips puts 2 1k chips in its a call
Therefore if a player has a mixture of chips and puts in 2 1k chips without saying anything then the same rule has to apply. Cant have 1 rule for 1 and a different rule for the same action. If they want to raise just say raise ........ simplez

Finally some sense itt.

People getting tilted by what is obviously a good rule (see above) is tilting in itself!

Obviously a terrible use of the word obviously.  Got to say I find that a bit tilting.

Thought you went to a school where they learnt you good English, sir*.

* Sent the other half of the forum on tilt there.

Terrible grammatically or terrible in that you disagree?

Btw, if using the phrase "learnt you good English" was intentional irony, wp.
As gatso said

You could say "obviously a good ruling" or " obviously the correct rule", but  " obviously a good rule" can't be correct.  We can show it isn't obvious by the number of people in the thread not realising it existed.   I still think it is a bad rule. 

Your pedantically Doobs

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pokerfan
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« Reply #51 on: June 03, 2012, 11:33:00 AM »

Dik9, While we are on rulings.

Peejay fans unfortunately have to go and puke - he got it all in pre with against Alex Clark's and Clark had walked away by the river of the board, he had to be called back!

Can a hand be declared dead if a player leaves the table ?
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dik9
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« Reply #52 on: June 03, 2012, 02:04:18 PM »

If the player had tabled his cards which I presume he did because you know what they are, then no way.  But IMO a player has to be at the table to turn his cards.

However, a player should never be called back by the TD/dealer
« Last Edit: June 03, 2012, 02:06:37 PM by dik9 » Logged

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pokerfan
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« Reply #53 on: June 03, 2012, 03:03:21 PM »

If the player had tabled his cards which I presume he did because you know what they are, then no way.  But IMO a player has to be at the table to turn his cards.

However, a player should never be called back by the TD/dealer

Tks.
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« Reply #54 on: June 04, 2012, 07:09:14 AM »

So you're playing in a £1/£2 cash game at DTD and there's a raise to £6.

A guy flicks in two red £5 chips and says nothing.

Tell me, learned friends, how often have you seen this being done with the intention to raise (without any verbal statement of intention)? Why should there be any difference between that and this tournament?
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« Reply #55 on: June 04, 2012, 08:23:23 AM »

I can not believe there have been 4 pages on this. Rule is clear and it is a call.

it doesnt matter if it's two of the same chips. can be different value chips and the ruling is still the same,

say wut?

so a 5k chip + a 1k chip = two chips and should go as a call. the fact the two chips are the same is very important.

As for the above this would be a raise to a total of 6k as the 5k covers the call so the 1k chip is additional.



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Royal Flush
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« Reply #56 on: June 05, 2012, 06:56:38 PM »

I tend to play in games where if this happens the dealer just asks the player "is that a raise or a call?" makes far more sense
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« Reply #57 on: June 06, 2012, 04:55:41 PM »

I tend to play in games where if this happens the dealer just asks the player "is that a raise or a call?" makes far more sense

Same, even though our stakes are a million miles apart
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